... 98 year old person
3 Answers
suzanne66
27 Jan 2011
Both Oxazepam and temazepam belong to a group of drugs called benzodiazepines.
Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed as a sedative or to relieve anxiety. They are a depressant, which means they help slow the body's system down and have sleep inducing properties.
Both drugs are similar in their duration of action and side effects etc.
Temazepam is probably more commonly used than oxazepam.
sashar07
21 Aug 2013
If you are taking Alprazolam is it possible to have a urine screen show positive for both of these drugs, oxazepam and temazepam?
multifacet
16 Mar 2011
I have taken both medications. Being younger, oxazepam has worked better for me. Temazepam was perscribed to me in my adolescent years- oxazepam has effects on the respiratory system (slows down breathing) more than temazepam. I would reccomend using temazepam given your age, its sedative properties are still very effective.
gjarboni
2 Jan 2019
Well, Temazepam is broken down into Oxazepam, so taking Temazepam gets you both drugs. Oxazepam is helpful if you have trouble staying asleep, not falling asleep:
From the Wikipedia page for Oxazepam:
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It is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine with a slow onset of action, so it is usually prescribed to individuals who have trouble staying asleep, rather than falling asleep.
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In response to the drug testing question, I don’t think so. Temazepam and Oxazepam are metabolites of Valium (diazepam), not alprazolam. I looked at the Wikipedia page for alprazolam and its metabolites only have chemical names, they’re not manufactured prescription drugs in their own right.
However I think that some tests don’t distinguish well between benzodiazepines in general.
From the Wikipedia page for alprazolam:
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Most commercial immunoassays for the benzodiazepine class of drugs cross-react with alprazolam, but confirmation and quantitation is usually performed using chromatographic techniques.
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The above quote is kind of confusing because alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, so cross-react doesn’t make sense. Based on the footnotes I’m thinking that alprazolam is picked up by general benzodiazepine tests, but further testing is needed to see what benzodiazepines are actually present.
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