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How many 1mg lorazepam would it take to equal one 5mg diazepam?

Responses (5)

kaismama 19 Nov 2012

1/2 of the lorazepam is equivalent to valium 5 mg.

Votes: +1
MacIntosh12 19 Nov 2012

kaismama is right. Or one could say that one loraz is equal to 10mgs diaz... right kaismama? BTW, Kai is a beautiful name! I've been meaning to tell you that, my friend.
Mac

Votes: +0
Inactive 19 Nov 2012

I agree, Kai was the name of our grandson we lost... Mary

kaismama 19 Nov 2012

That's a shame Mary. I'm so sorry for you. Kai is my little dog, a japanese chin. His name is Mitsukai, but I doubt he'd even know that name.

lap1026 7 Jul 2018

1 mg of lorazepam is equal to 5 mg of valium. I'm sorry but the answer below is incorrect.

Votes: +0
Sharlean 15 Dec 2018

I was told by both my doctor and pharmacist that lorazepam is stronger than valium. I've been taking valium for so long. It doesn't even work anymore. My doctor said... 1mg of lorazepam is equal to 10mg of valium. By both of them. So that's just what I was told. I hope that helps. Took 2mg of lorazepam at 4pm and it's 7:15pm and I'm flying.

Votes: +1
simonpashley00 5 Apr 2020

I don't know

Votes: +0
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