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How many 1mg lorazepam would it take to equal one 5mg diazepam?

Responses (3)

kaismama 19 Nov 2012

1/2 of the lorazepam is equivalent to valium 5 mg.

MacIntosh12 19 Nov 2012

kaismama is right. Or one could say that one loraz is equal to 10mgs diaz... right kaismama? BTW, Kai is a beautiful name! I've been meaning to tell you that, my friend.
Mac

Inactive 19 Nov 2012

I agree, Kai was the name of our grandson we lost... Mary

kaismama 19 Nov 2012

That's a shame Mary. I'm so sorry for you. Kai is my little dog, a japanese chin. His name is Mitsukai, but I doubt he'd even know that name.

MacIntosh12 19 Nov 2012

That ALways makes me want to just put me head on my desk and sob, Mary.

lap1026 9 days ago

1 mg of lorazepam is equal to 5 mg of valium. I'm sorry but the answer below is incorrect.

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