I've recently started getting severe panic attacks. My doctor prescribed me .5 mg Xanax (1-2 every 6 hours as needed). Taking 1 did not help, and neither did 2. So I called him and he told me to try taking 3 at a time, and then 4 only if that didn't help. So after another episode I tried taking 4 and it did somewhat help... but my question is this. Taking 4 of the .5 mg would equal 2 mg total. I've taken an actual 2mg bar in the past and that helped tremendously, nothing compared to taking 4 of these 0.5's. Why would the 2mg bar work so much better then 4 of these 0.5s if technically they are both 2mg? Is it maybe due to it being made my a different manufacturer? The ones I have now are by Actavis, and the bars were Sandoz. My dr told to me call him to let him know how taking the 4 worked, and I want to be able to just get written an actual 2mg Rx rather then having to take 4 of what I currently have. I wish I could just be upfront and tell him the 2mg helped me way more then these but its not a possibility unfortunately to tell him that.
So a .025 is a 5 mg Xanax because I am confused here
Search for questions
Still looking for answers? Try searching for what you seek or ask your own question.
Panic Disorder - I have tinnitus .Doctor prescribed Xanax 2 mg 3 times a day .that seems like a very
Updated 2 Jul 2014 • 3 answers
Updated 31 Mar 2017 • 1 answer
Updated 24 Feb 2019 • 2 answers
My doctor prescribed Xanax for my anxiety 14years ago at the dose of 4mg. daily. Is it safe to wean?
Updated 7 Jan 2019 • 1 answer
Alprazolam - have people successfully gotten off 38 years of (doctor prescribed, for anxiety) 1 mg a
Updated 27 Apr 2019 • 1 answer