In more detail; the case description according to the latest LUMBOSACRAL SPINE MRI report (1) Status post operative showing spinolaminectomies of L3 & L4 vertebra by pedicular 3 metal plates and 6 screws. (2) Forward slippage of L4 over L5 vertebra with consequent mild compromise of both neural exit foramina. (3) Reduction of height of L3/L4 & L4/L5 intervertebral discs and loss of normal bright T2 signal intensity of L1/L2, L2/L3 and L5/S1 intervertebral discs with marginal osteophytic lipping and degenerative marrow changes of the opposing lumber vertebral and plates. (4) L2/L3 posterior and left posterolateral disc protrusion. The general opinion was (1) First degree spondylolithesis of L4 Vertebra. (2) L3/L4 through L5/S1 epidural and bilateral peri- neural scarring with signs of intra- dural adhesions "arachnoiditis" (3) L2/L3 posterior and left posterolateral disc protrusion. The previous diagnosis was done two years after the metal plate’s fixation surgery. Currently the patient is suffering from severe pains in the buttocks left side especially around the sacrum and down the bottom side of the left leg with frequent numbness all over the left leg; recently pains appeared at the right side buttocks also, upon visiting an orthopedic physician he prescribed “Cymbalta 60 mg’’ for the patient until next visit which is set 30 days later than the first visit, my question is dose “Cymbalta 60 mg’’ will do any good for the patient with such diagnosis? And if dose, why and How? Thanks & best regards.