My depression does not include delusions, hallucinations, mania, hypomania, or any of the bipolar/ schizophrenic symptoms. I know it says it can be an add on therapy but why would someone with depression be prescribed that considering all of the side effects the drug causes? I’m asking for opinions only so please don’t be politically correct. I’m trying to see this through a different perspective since it does not have any logic from my perspective. I have read plenty of websites explaining it but it doesn’t seem logical to me.