I have just started taking the combined birth control pill Rigevidon and I have heard that it stops ovulation. If I am taking the pills perfectly at the exact same time every day for three weeks with one week break between each pack, then how come it is only over 99% effective and not 100% effective? Since it stops ovulation and you can't get pregnant if there is no egg, where does the <1% ineffectiveness come from? Also, does that mean that I would ovulate during the one week I am not on the pill each month?
No responses have yet been posted. Add your response to this question.
Search for questions
Still looking for answers? Try searching for what you seek or ask your own question.
Posted 4 Mar 2014 • 2 answers
Posted 12 Nov 2014 • 1 answer
Posted 26 May 2016 • 2 answers
Posted 1 Mar 2017 • 0 answers
Posted 22 Jul 2017 • 0 answers