I experienced hallucinations, vivid dreams and similar symptoms. I am now 54 years old with Bi-Polar Disorder. My question: Is it possible that the early overdose could have caused significant brain damage resulting in the condition later acquired that the psychiatric community has never given a reason for its onset? There have been theories, or hypothesis, though a clinical explanation is lacking.
That wasn't an overdose. You had some serious adverse effects, but I doubt very much if it has anything to do with what you're dealing with now. I've never heard of any medication precipitating bipolar disorder. It doesn't have a single thing that brings it up. There can be a genetic factor, but not brain damage. Since several things play into it, the docs can't really pin point exactly what caused it in someone.
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