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Differences in generics?
  1. #1
    wrmalloy is offline New Member
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    Default Differences in generics?

    I have been perscribed Bupropion and received two orders of same. One is >> WPI 839 and works GREAT! The other, latest fill, is >> E415 and does absolutly NOTHING for me???

    Anyone else experience anything like this with "same drug, different manufacturer"? I received both orders from my local VA. Called them to let them know, and they said they would 'note' the information.

  2. #2
    Robert_325 is offline Retired
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    Lots of people react differently to generics. The generics are supposed to be the same thing as the name brand or each other and they are for the most part. But there can be some differences in non-active ingredients, fillers, etc. Those things can affect how the medication works for you. If the generic doesn't work either request the one that does or else ask the dr to write the script to be filled with the name brand medication. Otherwise the pharmacy will fill it with the generic they get at the lowest price. It's all about the bottom line. Good luck and God bless.
    I am not a dr. My statements are based on years of experience and related education. Consult with the professional of your choice regarding matters of concern.

  3. #3
    plhr43 is offline New Member
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    Default Differences in Generics

    I just received refill of Diltiazem CD 240 from Express Scripts by a new manufacturer, Actavis, it is not working. My BP is going thru the roof. My Rx was previously manufactured by Apotex. Has anyone else experienced this problem? Any problems with Actavis?

  4. #4
    Cats Meow is offline Banned
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    The FDA allows generics to vary by plus or minus 20% which could amount to what a 40% difference from one mfr to another? Some people will swear there is absolutely no difference, but how can it be explained when someone is stable and dependant on a certain drug, then forced to switch, you guys are good examples, now most generic drugs are within certain tolerances from one another, the +/- 20% is the extreme, and sometimes there is psychological loyalty to a certain mfr or product, and that might have a slight influence, but all generics are not equal. I have done quite a bit of research on this, and can even back it up straight from the horses mouth, the FDA.
    If you're interested, read up on the Hatch-Waxman Act of 1999.

  5. #5
    just_a_mom is offline Member
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    Just a few notes: the FDA allows any drug to be +/- 15% of the stated dose regardless of whether it is made by generic or the original patent holder. However, cost involved in the actual DRUG that goes into the pill does come into pay much more heavily with generic manufacturers than the original producer. The original producer has to recoup incredible R&D costs (and I mean unbelievable R&D costs) plus clinical testing costs which far outway the amount of money it takes to actually synthesize the drug. This is not true with generics - they only have to pay to synthesize the drug and apply to the FDA to sell it (a tiny fraction of what the orginal pharma company's out of pocket costs are). All of that to say -- it is *probably* much more likely that the quality/quantity of drug is higher in the original "branded" pill than a generic. But is that enough for someone to tell the difference clinically? In the majority of cases - the answer is a resounding no because bottom line - the active drug IS the same and the dose varient is *usually* within tolerances of what a person would absorb daily. Again, there are always exceptions so I am not trying to belittle anyone's experience with a different manufacturer - the advice to tell your doc AND pharmacist about your experiences is right on. I just wanted to make sure no one was needlessly freaking out or avoiding generics just out of fear.

    just a mom

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