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Old 07-29-2007, 09:56 PM
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Default what is darvocet

Is darvocet an opiate? I take them for kidney pain and I was just wondering what class of drug it is considered
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Old 07-29-2007, 10:06 PM
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It's a synthetic opioid, roughly the strength of codeine, and fairly weak as analgesics go, even the FDA admitts they're no more effective for pain then, apap or other nsaids. They are a schedule 4 controlled substance (the lowest).
This is a good read on propoxyphene, it should be phased out soon.
http://www.citizen.org/publications/release.cfm?ID=7420
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Old 07-29-2007, 10:11 PM
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no it is not an opioid. all it does is trigger the central nervus system in to thinking there is no pain. it has nothing to do with the opioid receptors in your body, and you will not get an endourphin rush from it like you would from vicodin/oxy. codien is synthetic but 30-60mg of codien = 1 - 5mg hydro.
and is not a sched. 3 like vicodin is. and oxy is sched 2
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Old 07-29-2007, 10:38 PM
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I beg to differ with you Cantrell, it is in the class of opioids, look it up if you don't believe me. And yes it does bind with the opiate receptors. Also, Codeine is not synthetic. That's three strikes, you're out.

"Propoxyphene acts as a weak agonist at OP1, OP2, and OP3 opiate receptors within the central nervous system (CNS). Propoxyphene primarily affects OP3 receptors, which are coupled with G-protein receptors and function as modulators, both positive and negative, of synaptic transmission via G-proteins that activate effector proteins."
http://www.mongabay.com/health/medic.../Darvocet.html
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Old 08-03-2007, 08:31 PM
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its probably like tramadal/ultram/ultracet. its not considered an opiate but has similar effects, there not 100% sure on how the med works but it does
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Old 08-04-2007, 08:49 AM
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Not considered an opiate, i.e derived from opium as morphine is for example, but both Darvocet and Tramadol are considered opioids (opiate like).

The FDA is on record saying Propoxyphene (Darvocet) is no more effective for pain then Tylenol.
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