If anyone has an answer or any insight into this very perplexing problem, it would be appreciated.
I am a 63 year old man that has been diagnosed with degenerative spinal disease. My Neurologist and Pain Management physicians as well as my General Practitioner all agree that there is no procedure that will help me.
In short, it is what it is and I have to live with it. The only solution is pain medication that will help dull the pain to the point that I can have a semblance of normalcy in daily life. I have been on the following regiment for the past four years, Fentanyl Transdermal Patch, 25 mcg, once every 72 hours and Percocet 10/325 every six hours.
During that period of time I have had many urine tests at my General Practitioners and Pain Management physician’s office and there was never a problem. This changed with my last visit to my Pain Management doctor. My urine test did not indicate the present of Percocet which naturally set off a red flag.
The urine sample was then sent to an outside laboratory which came back and did not indicate Percocet and it also did not indicate the presents of Fentanyl. Naturally my Pain Management doctor was quite concerned due to the abuse that is rampant with prescription pain medication.
I have never had a problem with drugs or alcohol and I am very careful with the pain medication that I take. My pain medication is kept in a locked safe and no one has access to the medication but me. I have never given my medication to anyone and I have never sold my medication, nor has the thought ever crossed my mind.
My medication was tested and it tested positive for Oxycodone, so it was apparent that I was taking the drug Oxycodone. I have always been very consistent with applying the Fentanyl Patch every 72 hours, while there are times when I will go over a couple of hours in taking the Percocet, however never more than three hours. I use both prescriptions completely each month and have from the start of the regiment.
Thankfully, my Pain Management physician knows me well enough to know that the chance of me not taking my complete prescriptions each month and or selling my prescriptions is not in my nature. He also knows that I am intelligent enough to know that I am going to have a drug test when I come to his office.
The only rational logic is that for both the test and the retest, both of which were negative, the time from the ingestion of the drug until the time of the test was between 7-8 hours. I did another control test where I was tested two hours after ingestion and the test was positive. This however, does not explain the fact that the outside lab test showed negative for Fentanyl.
Any Ideas, ANYONE?